General Knowledge – Tutor-Saliba Knowledge is Everything Wed, 26 Feb 2020 07:41:52 +0000 en-US hourly 1 General Knowledge – Tutor-Saliba 32 32 172980208 105 Food Quiz Questions and Answers Wed, 26 Feb 2020 07:40:49 +0000 Food Quiz Questions and Answers

Food Quiz Questions and Answers General Knowledge Online Quiz Questions about Food   BAKING AND BAKED GOODS – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 1 You may have a sweet tooth, but how much do you know about baking and baked goods? Test your knowledge with this quiz.   1) What type of custard is […]

The post 105 Food Quiz Questions and Answers appeared first on Tutor-Saliba.

Food Quiz Questions and Answers

Food Quiz Questions and Answers

General Knowledge Online Quiz Questions about Food


BAKING AND BAKED GOODS – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 1

You may have a sweet tooth, but how much do you know about baking and baked goods? Test your knowledge with this quiz.


1) What type of custard is used to fill an éclair?

Answer: crème pâtissière

Éclairs are filled with crème pâtissière, or pastry cream.


2) What is the main ingredient in meringue

Answer: eggs

Meringue is made by whipping egg whites with sugar.


3) Which of these “cakes” is not actually a cake?

Answer: cheesecake

Cheesecake is more of a pie than a cake.


4) What is a fougasse?

Answer: a type of bread

Fougasse is a type of bread that is shaped to resemble an ear of wheat.


5) How many cups are in a pint?

Answer: 2

There are 2 cups in a pint.


6) Which of these grains does not contain gluten?

Answer: buckwheat

Despite its name, buckwheat is not actually related to wheat. It contains no gluten.


7) What is blind baking?

Answer: baking a crust without a filling

Blind baking refers to baking a pie crust or other pastry without any filling. The crust is often filled and then baked again briefly.


8) What is a snickerdoodle?

Answer: a type of cookie

A snickerdoodle is a type of sugar cookie that is rolled in cinnamon sugar.


WINE REGIONS AND VARIETIES: True or False? – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 2

Are you a wine enthusiast? Test your knowledge with this quiz.


9) Chablis is a sweet red wine. True or False?

Answer: False

Chablis, which originated in France, is a dry white wine.


10) The wine-producing region of Barossa Valley is located in California, United States. True or False?

Answer: False

Barossa Valley is located in Australia.


11) France is known for its Chianti wines. True or False?

Answer: False

The famed Chianti wine zones are located in Tuscany, Italy.


12) Vitis vinifera is the principal wine-producing plant. True or False?

Answer: True

Most of the world’s wine is made from varieties of the V. vinifera grape plant.


13) The wine-producing region of the Loire Valley is located in Australia. True or False?

Answer: False

The Loire Valley is located in France.


14) Bordeaux wines are named for the region in France from which they originate. True or False?

Answer: True

Bordeaux wines are named after the Bordeaux region, which is located in southwestern France.


15) The wine-producing region of Napa Valley is located in California, U.S. True or False?

Answer: True

Napa Valley is located in west-central California.


16) The Rhône region in France is known for its crisp white wines. True or False?

Answer: False

Rhône wines are not known for being crisp white wines. The Rhône region, in southeastern France, produces mostly strong, full-bodied red wines from the Syrah grape.


17) Sherry is a type of fortified wine. True or False?

Answer: True

Sherry is a fortified wine that originated in Spain.


18) Port originated in Italy. True or False?

Answer: False

Port (a sweet fortified wine) is named for the town of Porto in the Douro region of northern Portugal.


19) Prosecco is a sparkling wine. True or False?

Answer: True

Prosecco is a sparkling white wine made in Italy.


20) The wine-producing region of Champagne is located in France. True or False?

Answer: True

Champagne, known for the sparkling wine to which it gives its name, is located in northeastern France.


CHOCOLATE – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 3

What do you know about that delicious treat we call chocolate? Take this quiz to find out.


21) The Mayan and Aztec peoples used cocoa beans not only to make a delicious beverage but also as:

Answer: currency

Cocoa beans were extremely valuable and were used as currency in Aztec and Mayan society.


22) How does chocolate grow?

Answer: on trees

Chocolate is made from beans that grow on cocoa trees.


23) About when did people begin to consume chocolate in solid form, as opposed to only in liquid form?

Answer: 1850s

In 1847 the Englishman Joseph Fry discovered a way to combine cocoa butter, cocoa powder, and sugar into a paste thick enough to be pressed into a mold, thereby producing the world’s first chocolate bar.


24) Which European country was the first to enjoy chocolate?

Answer: Spain

Cocoa beans went first to Spain, possibly with the Spanish explorer Hernán Cortés, who would have taken them back from his travels to Mexico in the 1520s.


25) In about the late 17th century, what ingredient did people start adding to drinking chocolate?

Answer: milk

People began to drink chocolate with milk, an idea that originated with British doctor Sir Hans Sloane, who believed it offered much-needed added nutrition.


26) The first European chocolate shop opened in what city in 1657?

Answer: London

The first chocolate house, which was like a café, was opened by a Frenchman in London in 1657.


27) What type of chocolate was Nestlé the first, in 1930, to manufacture?

Answer: white chocolate

Nestlé was the first company to produce white chocolate.


28) Xocolatl, the Aztec Nahuatl word from which we get the word chocolate, translates to:

Answer: bitter water

Xocolatl translates to “bitter water.” The original drinking chocolate made by the Mayan and Aztec peoples was unsweetened.


29) It is commonly held that which explorer took chocolate back with him to Europe?

Answer: Hernán Cortés

After his travels throughout Mexico, Cortés took cocoa beans and the means to make drinking chocolate back to Spain with him, where it was kept quiet for about a century before its virtues began spreading to other parts of Europe.


GRAINS AND PSEUDOGRAINS – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 4

Think you’ve got healthy eating figured out? Test your knowledge of grains and other healthy seeds with this quiz.


30) All true grains are grasses. True or False?

Answer: True

All true grains and cereals are members of the grass family, Poaceae.


31) Quinoa and amaranth are related. True or False?

Answer: True

The pseudograins amaranth and quinoa are both members of the family Amaranthaceae.


32) Bulgur is made of barley groats. True or False?

Answer: False

Bulgur is a form of dry cracked wheat.


33) Buckwheat is a true grain. True or False?

Answer: False

Buckwheat is a pseudograin in the family Polygonaceae.


34) Millets are true cereal grasses. True or False?

Answer: True

All millet plants are members of the grass family.


35) Sorghum syrup is a sweetener similar to honey. True or False?

Answer: True

Sorghum stalks can be processed into a syrupy sweetener.


WORLD DUMPLINGS – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 5

Do you think you know dumplings? See how many of them you can identify.


36) Which cooking method is never used in making dumplings?

Answer: Roasting

Dumplings are never roasted.


37) Which country invented the cropadeau, an oatmeal dumpling stuffed with haddock liver?

Answer: Scotland

Cropadeau is brought to you by the folks who invented haggis, the Scots.


38) What is the name of the dumpling that is panfried, ear-shaped, and a staple of Japanese restaurants?

Answer: Gyoza

Gyoza can be filled with vegetables, pork, or fish.


39) Which ingredient would you be unlikely to find in the Indian dumpling called samosa?

Answer: Beef

Samosas, which are often served with chutney and mint sauce, are typically vegetarian.


40) Khinkali is a kind of dumpling made in the land that brought us the names Shevardnadze and Shalikashvili. To which country is it native?

Answer: Georgia

Khinkali—stuffed with minced meat, onions, cumin, and chili—are native to Georgia and known throughout the Caucasus region.


41) What is the name of an Afghani dumpling filled with scallions or leeks and served with yogurt and a tomato-based sauce?

Answer: Aushak (ashak)

Aushak is a standard of Afghani cooking: scallion dumplings served on a bed of garlicky mint yogurt and topped with a tomato-based sauce.


42) Momoare popular dumplings where?

Answer: Nepal and Tibet

Momo are popular throughout the Himalayan region, including Nepal, Tibet, Bhutan, and northern India.


THIS OR THAT? ESPRESSO EDITION – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 6

Nowadays, ordering coffee can sometimes feel daunting. The sheer variety of drinks made with espresso could inspire someone to bring a cheat sheet to the café counter. See how well you know your local café’s espresso drink menu.


43) 1/4 espresso + 3/4 steamed milk + dab of milk foam

Answer: Caffe Latte

It’s a caffe latte!


44) 1/3 Espresso + 2/3 hot chocolate + dollop of whipped cream (optional)

Answer: Caffe Mocha

It’s a caffe mocha!


45) 1/3 espresso + 2/3 hot water

Answer: Americano

It’s an Americano!


46) 1 shot of Espresso + 1/2 as much steamed milk

Answer: Noisette

It’s a noisette!


47) 1 shot of Espresso + dollop of milk foam

Answer: Macchiato

It’s a macchiato!


48) 1 shot of Espresso + 1 scoop ice cream

Answer: Affogato

It’s an affogato!


49) 2/3 Espresso + 1/3 warm milk

C Answer: ortado

It’s a cortado!


50) 1/4 Espresso + 3/4 drip coffee

Answer: Red Eye

It’s a red eye!


51) 1/2 Espresso + 1/2 steamed half & half

Answer: Breve

It’s a breve!


52) 1/3 espresso + 1/3 steamed milk + 1/3 milk foam

Answer: Cappuccino

It’s a cappuccino!


ICE CREAM – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 7

I scream, you scream, we all scream when we check our scores for this quiz.


53) Gelato, a version of ice cream that contains very low butterfat, originates from what country?

Answer: Italy

Gelato originates from the Italian island of Sicily, and by statute must contain less than 3.5% butterfat in order to be sold in Italy as “gelato.”


54) The ice-cream cone originates from what American state?

Answer: Missouri

The ice-cream cone, portable and self-contained, originated at the 1904 World’s Fair in St. Louis, Missouri, U.S.


55) Which American president declared July to be National Ice Cream Month across America?

Answer: Ronald Reagan

In 1984, President Ronald Reagan designated July as National Ice Cream Month, recognizing that ice cream was a fun and nutritious food enjoyed by over 90 percent of the nation’s population.


56) In addition to butterfat, milk and sugar, French-type ice creams and custards specifically contain what added ingredient?

Answer: Egg

Frozen custard and French-type ice creams contain eggs in addition to the ingredients normally used in making ice cream.


57) Which famous explorer first introduced iced desserts into Europe?

Answer: Marco Polo

Marco Polo first brought descriptions of fruit ices to Europe after discovering them during his travels in China.


58) What food is often used as a substitute for ice cream in advertising photo shoots?

Answer: Mashed Potato

Mashed Potato is often used a substitute given that it can be dyed to look like ice cream, and also does not melt, making it an apt substitute in photo shoots.


59) In what part of the world would you find a frozen dairy dessert called kulfi?

Answer: India

Kulfi originates from the Indian subcontinent, and usually comes in flavors such as rose, mango, and pistachio.


60) In what year was the ice-cream soda invented?

Answer: 1874

The ice-cream soda was first invented in Philadelphia in 1874.


WINE: True or False? – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 8

Pour yourself a glass and test your knowledge of this favorite fermented beverage.


61) Wine was first produced no earlier than 2000 years ago. True or False?

Answer: False

The earliest evidence of wine (to date) was found in Georgia, and is estimated to be almost 8,000 years old.


62) Wine is especially suited to grow in colder weather, such as in the Arctic region. True or False?

Answer: False

Wine grows best in tropical or semi-tropical weather. Low winter temperatures may kill the vine or its fruitful buds.


63) Wines are usually aged in containers made of oak wood. True or False?

Answer: True

Wines are aged in wooden containers made of oak, allowing oxygen to enter and water and alcohol to escape. Extracts from the wood contribute to the flavor.


64) As of 2009, the United States produces more wine than Italy. True or False?

Answer: False

In 2009, Italy produced as much as 47,699 million hectoliters of wine, whereas the United States only produced 20,620.


65) Cork stoppers were first used to age wine in the 12th century. True or False?

Answer: False

Mass production of glass bottles and the invention of the cork stopper in the 17th century allowed wines to be aged for years in bottles, as opposed to wooden casks.


66) Sake, a Japanese wine, is made from fermenting large amounts of rice as opposed to grapes. True or False?

Answer: True

Sake is produced when special strains of rice are precisely milled to remove the outer layers, and are then fermented for 4 weeks.


67) The Greek god of wine was Demeter. True or False?

Answer: False

The Greek god of wine was actually named Dionysus, but was also commonly known as Bacchus, especially in Roman culture.


68) In making white wine, the juice is separated from the skin before fermentation. True or False?

Answer: True

When the juice of white grapes is processed or a white wine is desired, the juice is usually separated from the skins immediately after crushing in order to avoid undesirable color extraction.


WHAT IS IT? FRUITS AND VEGGIES EDITION – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 9

Is a watermelon a berry? What are the things on top of broccoli, anyway? Test your knowledge of fruits and vegetables.


69) Tomatoes are fruits. True or False?

Answer: TRUE

Although tomatoes are listed as vegetables for nutrition, they are fruits botanically.


70) A nectarine is a peach without fuzz. True or False?

Answer: TRUE

Nectarines and peaches are the same species; nectarines have a genetic variation that gives them smooth skin.


71) Asparagus is a:

Answer: Stem

Asparagus stalks are edible stems topped with modified, scale-like leaves.


72) Peanuts are root nodules. True or False?

Answer: FALSE

Peanuts are fruits that the plant matures underground.


73) A watermelon is a berry. True or False?

Answer: TRUE

Botanically, a berry is a fruit produced from a single flower with one ovary. A watermelon is thus a berry.


74) A potato is a:

Answer: Tuber

Potato tubers are modified stems that store starch.


75) A broccoli crown is topped with:

Answer: Flower buds

Broccoli is grown for its edible flower buds and stalk.


76) The “seeds” on the outside of a strawberry are actually fruits. True or False?

Answer: TRUE

The red part of a strawberry is called an accessory. The true fruits, each of which bears a single seed inside, are the “seeds” embedded on the outside of the flesh.


77) An orange is a fleshy ovary. True or False?

Answer: TRUE

Technically, all fruits are ovaries that protect the plant embryos (e.g., seeds).


78) A carrot is not a true root. True or False?

Answer: FALSE

A carrot is large taproot.


PIZZA: True or False? – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 10

Fresh, frozen, delivered, or homemade, test your knowledge of pizza with this quiz. Our tip: Don’t take this quiz hungry.


79) The first pizzeria in New York City appeared in 1850. True or False?

Answer: False

The first pizzeria in New York City opened in 1905.


80) Chicago-style pizza is always deep dish. True or False?

Answer: False

While deep dish pizza is the better known of Chicago-style pizzas, Chicago also boasts a distinctive thin-crust style that is crispier than other styles of pizza.


81) The cheese most commonly used on pizza is provolone. True or False?

Answer: False

The most common pizza cheese is mozzarella.


82) Pizza Hut was founded in the 1950s. True or False?

Answer: True

The first Pizza Hut was opened in 1958.


83) Hawaiian style pizza comes from Hawaii. True or False?

Answer: False

Hawaiian pizza, which usually includes ham and pineapple as toppings, is claimed to have been created in Canada.


84) The first-ever internet purchase was a pizza. True or False?

Answer: True

The first internet purchase was a pizza from Pizza Hut in 1994.


CHEESE: True or False? – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 11

How much do you really know about cheese (aside from the fact that it’s delicious)? Test your knowledge with this quiz.


85) Ancient Greeks ate cheese. True or False?

Answer: True

The ancient Greeks and Romans knew and valued cheese, as did early people in northern Europe.


86) Cheese was not introduced to America until the 18th century. True or False?

Answer: False

In 1620, cheese and cows were part of the ship’s stores carried to North America by the Pilgrims on the Mayflower.


87) Pasteurizing milk makes cheese ripen faster. True or False?

Answer: False

Cheese produced from pasteurized milk ripens less rapidly and less extensively than most cheese made from raw or lightly heat-treated milk.


88) Rennet comes from a cow’s stomach. True or False?

Answer: False

Rennet is an enzymatic preparation that is usually obtained from the fourth stomach of calves.


89) There are only about two dozen types of cheese. True or False?

Answer: False

Hundreds of varieties of cheese are made throughout the world.


90) Paneer is a cheese from India and Bangladesh. True or False?

Answer: False

Paneer is a popular cheese of South Asia.


91) Macaroni and cheese was invented in the 20th century. True or False?

Answer: False

Recipes for macaroni and cheese-esque dishes can be found in medieval cookbooks!


92) Cheese has four basic ingredients. True or False?

Answer: False

Some cheeses require as little as two ingredients.


WALNUTS: True or False? Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 12

Nuts about walnuts? Find out how much you really know.


93) Walnuts contain high levels of sodium. True or False?

Answer: False

Walnuts contain only trace amounts of sodium and are considered to be naturally sodium-free.


94) Walnuts have been proven to beneficial to cardiovascular health. True or False?

Answer: True

In study after study, walnuts have been shown to lower cholesterol and improve cardiovascular function.


95) Walnuts are a type of fruit known as a drupe. True or False?

Answer: True

Walnuts are a type of drupe, that is, a fruit in which the outer layer of the ovary wall is a thin skin, the middle layer is thick and usually fleshy (though sometimes tough, as in the almond, or fibrous, as in the coconut), and the inner layer, known as the pit, or putamen, is hard and stony. Other drupes besides walnuts include cherries, peaches, mangoes, and olives.


96) The English walnut is only grown in England. True or False?

Answer: False

The English walnut, cultivated for many years in England, is also grown elsewhere, including parts of North and South America. By the way, the English walnut did not originate in England. It’s actually from Persia, or what is now known as Iran; this is why the English walnut is also known as the Persian walnut.


97) Oregon is the largest producer of walnuts in the United States. True or False?

Answer: False

Not even close. California produces almost all of the commercial supply of walnuts in the United States.


98) Some walnut trees live for more than 200 years. True or False?

Answer: True

The black walnut grows slowly, maturing on good soils in about 150 years, and may have a life span of more than 250 years.


99) Walnuts are a good source of omega-3 fatty acids. True or False?

Answer: True

Walnuts are an excellent source of alpha-linolenic acid, an omega-3 fatty acid. They are also a good source of copper, magnesium, and phosphorous.


GENERAL FOOD KNOWLEDGE: True or False? – Food Quiz Questions and Answers Part 13

From coffee to hops, turn up the heat in this study of food.


100) Pasteurization is intended to make milk taste better. True or False?

Answer: False

Pasteurization helps eliminate potentially harmful microorganisms from milk without changing its structure or taste.


101) Ghee is a kind of goat cheese. True or False?

Answer: False

Ghee is clarified butter made from cow’s milk. It is popular in the cuisine of India and South Asia. Ghee is made by melting butter and removing the milk solids.


102) Roquefort is a kind of cheese. True or False?

Answer: True

Roquefort is a kind of cheese made from sheep’s milk.


103) The Jerusalem artichoke is a kind of sunflower. True or False?

Answer: True

The sunflower known as the Jerusalem artichoke is popular as a cooked vegetable in Europe.


104) Thomas Jefferson liked spaghetti. True or False?

Answer: True

In 1786 Thomas Jefferson brought back from Italy a die for making spaghetti so that he could serve pasta to his friends.


105) Coffee is a tropical plant. True or False?

Answer: True

Coffee is a tropical plant that requires ample rain and moderate temperatures. Coffee is grown within a belt extending around the world between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.


Check > Top 70 History Quiz Questions and Answers

The post 105 Food Quiz Questions and Answers appeared first on Tutor-Saliba.

]]> 0 58
Top 70 History Quiz Questions and Answers Tue, 25 Feb 2020 11:04:28 +0000 History Quiz Questions and Answers

Top 70 History Quiz Questions and Answers History Quiz Questions with Answer and Explanation     WOMEN’S HISTORY: FAMOUS FIRSTS – History Quiz Questions and Answers Part 1 Women have accomplished some fantastic feats in the course of history. Test your knowledge of some famous firsts for women.   1) The world’s first novel was […]

The post Top 70 History Quiz Questions and Answers appeared first on Tutor-Saliba.

History Quiz Questions and Answers

Top 70 History Quiz Questions and Answers

History Quiz Questions with Answer and Explanation



WOMEN’S HISTORY: FAMOUS FIRSTS – History Quiz Questions and Answers Part 1

Women have accomplished some fantastic feats in the course of history. Test your knowledge of some famous firsts for women.


1) The world’s first novel was written by a woman. True or False?

Answer: True

Most scholars consider The Tale of Genji to be the world’s first novel. It was written c. 1010 CE by Murasaki Shikibu.


2) The first woman to swim the English Channel was French. True or False?

Answer: False

The first woman to swim the English Channel was American Gertrude Ederle in 1926.


3) Author Zora Neale Hurston was the first African American graduate of Barnard College. True or False?

Answer: True

Hurston studied anthropology at Barnard and graduated in 1928.


4) Amelia Earhart was the first woman to fly solo across the Pacific. True or False?

Answer: False

Amelia Earhart was the first woman to fly solo across the Atlantic.


5) The first woman in space was from Russia. True or False?

Answer: True

The first woman in space was Russian cosmonaut Valentina Tereshkova in 1963.


6) Ruth Bader Ginsburg was the first woman to serve on the United States Supreme Court. True or False?

Answer: False

Sandra Day O’Connor was the first woman to serve on the United States Supreme Court.


7) The first African American to win an Academy Award was a woman. True or False?

Answer: True

Hattie McDaniel won a best supporting actress award for her role as Mammy in Gone with the Wind (1939).


8) Nadia Comăneci was the first person to achieve a perfect score of 10 in Olympic gymnastics. True or False?

Answer: True

Comăneci earned seven perfect 10s at the Montreal Olympics in 1976.



THE VIETNAM WAR – History Quiz Questions and Answers Part 2

Who backed whom? How was the U.S. involved? Which foreign leaders were involved? Test your knowledge of the Vietnam War with this quiz.


9) Who was the president of the Democratic Republic of Vietnam, or North Vietnam, during most of the war?

Answer: Ho Chi Minh

At the end of World War II, in August 1945, Ho Chi Minh and his Vietnamese guerrilla forces seized much of northern Vietnam, including the city of Hanoi. Ho then declared Vietnam’s independence and the formation of a provisional government, which he had been named to lead. After the country was formally divided into northern and southern zones in 1954, Ho was president of North Vietnam until his death in 1969.


10) Which assistance program, implemented by U.S. Pres. Dwight D. Eisenhower in 1954, aimed to aid South Vietnam through psychological warfare and paramilitary activities?

Answer: Saigon Military Mission

On June 1, 1954, President Eisenhower implemented a covert operation called the Saigon Military Mission. The operation, headed by the U.S. Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), intended to aid South Vietnam against North Vietnamese-backed rebels by means of psychological warfare and paramilitary strategy.


11) Which Chinese communist leader supported North Vietnam?

Answer: Mao Zedong

Mao Zedong of China, in tandem with the Soviets (despite the open hostility between the two), began to provide aid to North Vietnam in 1964.


12) A Buddhist monk set himself aflame in response to what?

Answer: South Vietnamese Pres. Ngo Dinh Diem’s religious repression

Buddhist monk Thich Quang Duc publicly set himself aflame in direct response to South Vietnamese President Diem’s repression of Buddhists. Diem—more specifically, his brother’s wife, Madame Nhu—publicly endorsed Roman Catholicism and intentionally ridiculed Buddhism.


13) What was the name of the U.S. surveillance ship that was attacked by North Vietnam in the Gulf of Tonkin?

Answer: USS Maddox

The USS Maddox was attacked in August 1964, perhaps having been suspected of involvement in recent South Vietnamese raids on North Vietnam. Days later, the Maddox and an accompanying U.S. ship reported a second North Vietnamese attack. That led U.S. Pres. Lyndon Johnson to secure congressional passage of the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution, which authorized him to take any measures he deemed necessary to deal with future threats to U.S. forces or U.S. allies in Southeast Asia. Johnson’s handling of the situation contributed to his victory in the November presidential election.


14) What event of the war caused many Americans to realize that, contrary to what they had been told, victory was not near?

Answer: Tet Offensive

On the Lunar New Year, or Tet, of 1968, the communist North launched a major offensive in the South after preoccupying its opponents’ troops with diversionary attacks. U.S. and South Vietnamese forces managed, miraculously, to recover quickly from the forceful blow. Many Americans at home, however, had been under the impression that U.S. forces had almost completely contained the North and that victory was in their pocket. The Tet Offensive broke that illusion, and American public support for U.S. involvement in the war dropped.


15) What was the name of U.S. Pres. Richard Nixon’s plan to enable South Vietnam to fight without a direct U.S. military presence?

Answer: Vietnamization

In June 1969 President Nixon announced the withdrawal of 25,000 U.S. troops from Vietnam as the beginning of his Vietnamization program, which aimed to shift the burden of fighting from U.S. forces to South Vietnamese forces while bolstering the latter with added material and advisory support. He intended to withdraw more than 150,000 troops over the subsequent year.


16) What happened in Quang Ngia province in 1968?

Answer: My Lai Massacre

On March 16, 1968, U.S. soldiers killed as many as 500 unarmed villagers in the hamlet of My Lai, Quang Ngia. U.S. intelligence had believed that a Viet Cong battalion was taking refuge there when in reality it was hiding more than 40 miles (65 km) away.


17) North and South Vietnam became the Socialist Republic of Vietnam in what year?

Answer: 1976

In 1976, after the South finally fell, North and South became one country, the Socialist Republic of Vietnam. A military government was installed with its capital in Hanoi.


ANCIENT EGYPTIAN GODS AND GODDESSES – History Quiz Questions and Answers Part 3

Ancient Egypt had a huge pantheon of gods and goddesses. How many of them do you know?


18) Which Egyptian god was often represented as a falcon, or as a man with the head of a falcon?

Answer: Horus

Horus, a sky god, was the son of the goddess Isis and the god Osiris.


19) Which Egyptian fertility goddess was often represented standing at one corner of a deceased person’s sarcophagus and was also thought to guard the canopic jar containing the liver of the deceased person?

Answer: Isis

The goddesses Nephthys, Neith, and Selket stood at the other three corners of the sarcophagus. Isis and the god Imsety were thought to guard the liver of the deceased person.


20) Which evil snake god gave his name in 2005 to an asteroid that was briefly believed to be on a possible collision course with Earth?

Answer: Apophis

Apophis, the god of chaos, was the enemy of the sun god Re. The asteroid 99942 Apophis, discovered in 2004, was ultimately determined to pose no threat to Earth.


21) Which Egyptian god—known as the god of storms and the desert—was usually represented as an animal whose species has not been identified by modern Egyptologists and zoologists?

Answer: Seth

Seth was represented with a dog-like body, squared ears, a tufted tail, and a long snout. A number of real animals—such as the aardvark, fennec fox, jackal, and okapi—have been suggested as the basis for his form, but it is also possible that the animal is a mythical composite.


22) Which god is credited with inventing writing?

Answer: Thoth

Thoth, the god of learning, was depicted as a man with the head of an ibis.


23) What is the goggle-eyed, bowlegged, dwarf god Bes known for doing?

Answer: Protecting women during childbirth

His unusual appearance was believed to drive away evil spirits.


24) Which goddess was probably first worshipped as a lioness or a wild cat but was represented as a domestic cat after domestic cats were introduced into Egypt about 2000 BCE?

Answer: Bastet

Bastet is often represented carrying an ancient percussion instrument called the sistrum.


25) Which god is typically represented as a mummy?

Answer: Osiris

Egyptian myth says that Osiris was the king of Egypt until he was murdered by his brother Seth. He was resurrected by his wife Isis and became the god of the dead.


26) During the Amarna period (c. 1353–36 BCE) which god was elevated above all other gods?

Answer: Aton

King Amenhotep IV took the name Akhenaten and made drastic changes to the official Egyptian religion, including establishing a new cult dedicated to the Aton, the sun’s disk. The changes were reversed soon after Akhenaten’s rule ended.


NAME THE AFRICAN BATTLE – History Quiz Questions and Answers Part 4

Are you a fan of African history? Test your knowledge with this quiz.


27) In which battle did the Ethiopians defeat the Italians in 1896?

Answer: Battle of Adwa

The Ethiopian army of Emperor Menilek defeated the Italian army at the Battle of Adwa on March 1, 1896. Menilek’s victory was noteworthy, as it was the first instance during the colonial era of African forces delivering a crushing defeat to a European power.


28) In which battle did Major General Sir Herbert Kitchener defeat ʿAbd Allāh in 1898 and win Sudanese territory?

Answer: Battle of Omdurman

The Battle of Omdurman was fought on September 2, 1898, in what is now the country of Sudan. Kitchener’s victory over ʿAbd Allāh led to the establishment of British dominance in the Sudan.


29) In which battle did the Zulu and Boers meet in 1838?

Answer: Battle of Blood River

The Battle of Blood River (also known as the Battle of Ncome River) was fought on December 16, 1838, in what is now the country of South Africa, between the Zulu and Voortrekker Boers migrating into Zulu lands. The Zulu were defeated.


30) In which World War II battle did Allied forces meet Axis troops in the North African desert in 1942?

Answer: Battle of el-Alamein

El-Alamein was the site of two battles between the Allied and Axis forces in 1942 during World War II. British troops dug in there to prevent German and Italian troops from advancing farther east into Egypt, and by early July they had stopped them, although a battle of attrition had developed. The second battle began in October, with the British on the offensive as they tried to drive back the Axis troops, who did retreat the next month.


31) In which battle did the forces of Usman dan Fodio suffer a defeat in 1804 while warring against the kingdom of Gobir?

Answer: Battle of Tsuntua

Usman dan Fodio led a jihad against the kingdom of Gobir in what is now the country of Nigeria. Although his forces lost the Battle of Tsuntua, they had several successes after that and achieved the main military objectives of the jihad in 1808.


32) Which battles took place during the Anglo-Zulu War in 1879?

Answer: Battles of Isandlwana and Rorke’s Drift

The Battles of Isandlwana and Rorke’s Drift occurred on January 22–23, 1879, during the Anglo-Zulu War in what is now the country of South Africa. A large Zulu force handily defeated a smaller British force at Isandlwana but were later defeated by the British at Rorke’s Drift.


33) In which battle was the army of the Portuguese king Sebastian defeated by the forces of Saʿdī sultan of Morocco, ʿAbd al-Malik, in 1578?

Answer: Battle of the Three Kings

The Battle of the Three Kings, also known as the Battle of the Wadi al-Makhāzin, is where the forces of the Saʿdī sultan of Morocco, ʿAbd al-Malik, defeated those of Portugal’s King Sebastian on August 4, 1578. It took place at the banks of the Wadi al-Makhāzin, the source of the battle’s Arabic name. The battle takes its European name from the deaths of the three “kings” involved in the fighting—Sebastian, al-Mutawakkil (a deposed Moroccan sultan with whom Sebastian was allied), and ʿAbd al-Malik. The first two drowned while trying to cross the Wadi al-Makhāzin, and the latter, who was ill to begin with, died the morning after the battle.


34) Which battle took place in 1899 during the South African War (1899–1902)?

Answer: Battle of Modder River

The Battle of Modder River was fought on November 28, 1899, between British troops and Boer forces during the South African War (also known as the Boer War, the Second Boer War, and the Anglo-Boer War). The British won the battle, but it was a costly victory in terms of the number of British soldiers who were killed or wounded.


35) Which battle saw forces from Portugal and the Kongo Kingdom skirmishing over competing land claims in 1665?

Answer: Battle of Mbwila

The Battle of Mbwila (or Ulanga) was fought on October 29, 1665, between Portugal and the kingdom of Kongo. Portugal won and also killed the kingdom’s leader, António I Nvita a Nkanga, during the fighting. The kingdom of Kongo continued to exist but was no longer unified, descending into civil war.


MILITARY HISTORY BUFF QUIZ – History Quiz Questions and Answers Part 5

Can you tell your Salamis from your Stalingrad? Test your knowledge of some of the greatest moments in military history.


36) Which World War I battle is regarded as the first widespread use of tanks in combat?

Answer: Battle of Cambrai

On November 20, 1917, hundreds of British tanks shattered German lines at Cambrai, but bad weather and inadequate infantry support doomed the offensive. Germany regained virtually all of its lost territory within two weeks.


37) Which legendary Carthaginian general is said to have sworn undying enmity against Rome prior to carrying out a nearly 20-year military campaign against the city and its allies?

Answer: Hannibal

One of the most-gifted military commanders of antiquity, Hannibal was a brilliant exponent of early maneuver warfare.


38) When this German officer surrendered at Stalingrad in January 1943, he became the first field marshal in German history to be captured.

Answer: Friedrich Paulus

With no hope of relief and forbidden by Hitler to attempt a breakout, Germany’s beleaguered Sixth Army commander rejected the order to commit suicide that was implicit with his last-minute promotion to field marshal.


39) This naval battle took place shortly after the Spartan stand at Thermopylae, and it checked the Persian advance in Greece.

Answer: Battle of Salamis

Athenian naval strategist Themistocles sacrificed his own city, which was put to the torch by the Persians, in an ultimately successful effort to achieve the advantage over the numerically superior Persian fleet.


40) The sinking of this ocean liner during the final months of World War II in Europe was the deadliest maritime disaster in history.

Answer: Wilhelm Gustloff

The overwhelming majority of the 9,000 people who died in the sinking of the Gustloff were civilians, but because it was a German ship acting as a military transport in a time of war, it was seen as a legal target for Russian submariners.


41) This Shawnee chief led what was arguably the most-formidable pan-Indian military force in North America, and he helped capture Detroit without firing a shot.

Answer: Tecumseh

In addition to the capture of Fort Detroit, Tecumseh participated in a battle known as Saint Clair’s Defeat, an encounter that is widely regarded as the worst rout of a U.S. military force by Native American warriors.


42) What kind of aircraft was the Enola Gay, the plane that dropped the atomic bomb on Hiroshima?

Answer: B-29 Superfortress

The B-29 was the longest-range heavy bomber in the U.S. fleet, and both atomic bombs were dropped by B-29s taking off from the island of Tinian.


43) Upon hearing of his victory at the Battle of Trafalgar, this British admiral’s last words were “Now I am satisfied. Thank God, I have done my duty.”

Answer: Horatio Nelson

Nelson was shot and mortally wounded by a French sniper, but the combined French and Spanish fleet had been annihilated, and Napoleon’s visions of British conquest were shattered.


44) This battle, which took place a short distance southwest of the Sea of Galilee, halted Mongol expansion to the west.

Answer: Battle of ʿAyn Jālūt

The Mamlūk army led the 10,000-strong Mongol force into a trap, thus sparing Cairo the fate that had been suffered by Baghdad.


45) Disease accounted for a hugely disproportionate number of casualties in this 19th-century war, so much so that nursing pioneer Florence Nightingale was enlisted to improve conditions in military hospitals.

Answer: Crimean War

Death rates due to disease were appalling in the Crimean War, accounting for some 90 percent of fatalities.


NOT-SO-COMMON KNOWLEDGE – History Quiz Questions and Answers Part 6

It is well known that Mount Everest at about 8,850 meters is the world’s highest mountain, but did you know that K2 at about 8,611 meters is the world’s second highest peak? Test yourself to see how many of these lesser-known facts you know.


46) Which city hosted the second modern Olympic Games?

Answer: Paris

The second modern Olympic Games were held in 1900 in Paris.


47) During the Apollo 11 lunar mission, who piloted the command module while Neil Armstrong and Edwin Aldrin explored the surface of the Moon?

Answer: Michael Collins

On July 16, 1969, Michael Collins was launched to the Moon on the Apollo 11 mission with commander Neil A. Armstrong and lunar module pilot Edwin E. Aldrin, Jr. Armstrong and Aldrin landed on the Moon in the lunar module Eagle on July 20 while Collins remained in the command module Columbia.


48) Who was the second of King Henry VIII of England’s wives?

Answer: Anne Boleyn

Mother of the future Elizabeth I, Anne Boleyn was Henry VIII’s second wife.


49) Who wrote the Johnny Cash classic “A Boy Named Sue”?

Answer: Shel Silverstein

More famous for his poetry, Shel Silverstein wrote the novelty song “A Boy Named Sue,” which became a huge hit when Johnny Cash included it on his 1969 album Johnny Cash at San Quentin.


50) Who assassinated Robert Kennedy in 1968?

Answer: Sirhan Sirhan

Sirhan Sirhan, a Palestinian-born Jordanian citizen, was convicted (1969) of fatally shooting U.S. Sen. Robert F. Kennedy on June 5, 1968. He received the death penalty, but the sentence was later commuted to life.


51) Which actors was born Maurice Micklewhite?

Answer: Michael Caine

Born Maurice Micklewhite in 1933, Michael Caine went on to appear in more than 100 films, renowned for his versatility in leading and character roles.


52) Better known for his exploits as a professional wrestler, Jesse Ventura also served as governor of which American state from 1999 to 2003?

Answer: Minnesota

American professional wrestler and actor Jesse Ventura served as governor of Minnesota from 1999 to 2003.


53) Which  legendary bands was originally known as Warsaw?

Answer: Joy Division

Inspired by seeing the Sex Pistols perform in Manchester, Warsaw was formed in the spring of 1977 to play thrashing punk music. By early 1978 they had replaced their original drummer and changed the band’s name to Joy Division.


54) During the American Revolution, where did the Battle of Bunker Hill actually take place?

Answer: Breed’s Hill

The first major battle of the American Revolution is known as the Battle of Bunker Hill, but Breed’s Hill was the primary locus of combat.


55) Who won the second season of American Idol?

Answer: Ruben Studdard

Ruben Studdard rose to fame as winner of the second season of American Idol. He later received a Grammy Award nomination in 2003 for Best Male R&B Vocal Performance for his recording of “Superstar.”


56) Who was Richard Nixon’s vice president from 1969 to 1973?

Answer: Spiro Agnew

Spiro Agnew served as the 39th vice president of the United States in the Republican administration of Pres. Richard Nixon.


57) Which of these ships was a sister ship to the British luxury liner Titanic?

Answer: Olympic

Mainly built side by side with Titanic, Olympic was in service from 1911 to 1935.


58) Which of these actors was the second “Doctor” in the BBC’s science fiction television series Doctor Who?

Answer: Patrick Troughton

Patrick Troughton played the Doctor from 1966 to 1969.


59) In which county is the English city of Canterbury located?

Answer: Kent

Famous for its magnificent cathedral, the historic English city of Canterbury is in the southeastern county of Kent.


U.S. PRESIDENTIAL ELECTIONS – History Quiz Questions and Answers Part 7

Which day of the week are U.S. presidential elections held? Who was George Washington’s running mate? Test your knowledge of U.S. presidential elections with this quiz.


60) Which candidate won the popular vote in 1876?

Answer: Samuel J. Tilden

Although Tilden won nearly 300,000 more votes, the election was won by Rutherford B. Hayes, who prevailed in the electoral college.


61) Since the 1840s, on which day of the week have U.S. presidential elections been held?

Answer: Tuesday

Until the mid-19th century, Election Day varied from state to state. An 1845 law set a single Election Day for the entire country: the Tuesday after the first Monday in November.


62) According to an infamous Chicago Tribune headline, who defeated Pres. Harry Truman in the 1948 election?

Answer: Thomas Dewey

With polls predicting a win for Dewey, and a printers’ strike requiring the Tribune to go to press before the results were announced, the newspaper ran with the headline “Dewey Defeats Truman” for its first edition. The actual vote proved otherwise. In a memorable photograph, Truman grins as he holds the paper aloft.


63) What term, popularized after the 2000 election, describes an incompletely punched hole in a paper ballot?

Answer: hanging chad

The peculiarities of ballot design and tabulation were widely scrutinized in the aftermath of the 2000 election, when the vote in Florida was so close that a recount was held.


64) Who was George Washington’s running mate in 1789?

Answer: nobody

In the first presidential election, there were no formal political parties and therefore no party tickets. Each candidate ran by himself. The candidate with the most votes in the electoral college became president, and the runner-up became vice president. This changed with the passage of the Twelfth Amendment (1804), which required electors to vote for both a president and a vice president.


65) In 1984 Pres. Ronald Reagan won every state except one. Which one did he lose?

Answer: Minnesota

Minnesota was the home state of Reagan’s opponent, Walter Mondale.


66) When was the last time a third-party candidate won any electoral votes?

Answer: 1968

George Wallace won five Southern states (for a total of 46 electoral votes) as the firebrand candidate of the antiliberal American Independent Party. Although Ross Perot in 1992 won a greater share of the popular vote than Wallace did in 1968, Perot failed to pick up a single state.


67) After he left the White House, Pres. Theodore Roosevelt stood for election in 1912 as the candidate of what party?

Answer: Bull Moose Party

Formally known as the Progressive Party, the Bull Moose Party was organized as a reaction against the conservative policies of Republican Pres. William Howard Taft. Roosevelt, who survived an assassination attempt during the campaign, went on to earn more electoral votes than Taft, though the election was ultimately won by the Democratic candidate, Woodrow Wilson.


68) Which presidential candidate holds the record for the most second-place finishes?

Answer: William Jennings Bryan

Bryan was the Democratic nominee in 1896, 1900, and 1908. An ambitious politician and a popular public speaker, he nevertheless failed to become president. He later served as secretary of state under Woodrow Wilson.


69) Who won the 1840 election with the slogan “Tippecanoe and Tyler Too”?

Answer: William Henry Harrison

The nickname “Tippecanoe” derives from the Battle of Tippecanoe, an engagement during the War of 1812 in which Harrison led the United States to victory. The battle made him a national hero. A month after his presidential inauguration, Harrison died and was succeeded by his vice president, John Tyler.


70) Maine is one of two states that do not apportion their electoral votes in a “winner-takes-all” format. What is the other state?

Answer: Nebraska

While most states award all of their electoral votes to the winner of the statewide vote, Maine and Nebraska use a method in which the statewide winner receives two electoral votes and the winner of each congressional district receives an additional electoral vote. Nebraska split its votes in 2008 (four for John McCain, one for Barack Obama), and Maine split its votes in 2016 (three for Hillary Clinton, one for Donald Trump).


Check 111 Animal Quiz Questions and Answers > 105 Food Quiz Questions and Answers

The post Top 70 History Quiz Questions and Answers appeared first on Tutor-Saliba.

]]> 0 53
3500 Kerala PSC General Knowledge Malayalam Questions and Answers Mon, 24 Feb 2020 08:51:20 +0000 Kerala Psc Questions and Answers

3500 Kerala PSC General Knowledge Malayalam Questions and Answers   കേരള പി. എസ്. സി. മലയാളം ചോദ്യങ്ങളും ഉത്തരങ്ങളും.   പി. എസ്. സി. ആവർത്തന ചോദ്യങ്ങൾ. Learn Malayalam General Knowledge and Win PSC Exam Easily. PSC Repeated questions. PSC Quiz Questions with Answers.   PSC General Knowledge Malayalam Questions and Answers Part 1   ദത്തവകാശ നിരോധനനിയമം നടപ്പിലാക്കിയ ബ്രിട്ടീഷ് ഭരണാധികാരി […]

The post 3500 Kerala PSC General Knowledge Malayalam Questions and Answers appeared first on Tutor-Saliba.

Kerala Psc Questions and Answers

3500 Kerala PSC General Knowledge Malayalam Questions and Answers


കേരള പി. എസ്. സി. മലയാളം ചോദ്യങ്ങളും ഉത്തരങ്ങളും.   പി. എസ്. സി. ആവർത്തന ചോദ്യങ്ങൾ.

Learn Malayalam General Knowledge and Win PSC Exam Easily. PSC Repeated questions. PSC Quiz Questions with Answers.


PSC General Knowledge Malayalam Questions and Answers Part 1


  1. ദത്തവകാശ നിരോധനനിയമം നടപ്പിലാക്കിയ ബ്രിട്ടീഷ് ഭരണാധികാരി ആരായിരുന്നു

ഡൽഹൗസി പ്രഭു


  1. തറൈൻ നഗരം സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്നത് ഏത് സംസ്ഥാനത്താണ്



  1. ഇന്ത്യയിൽ ഒന്നാം പഞ്ചവത്സര പദ്ധതി ആരംഭിച്ചത് ഏത് വർഷമായിരുന്നു



  1. സർദാർ സരോവർ പദ്ധതി ഏത് നദിയിലാണ് സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്നത്

നർമദാ നദി


  1. ലോക്സഭാ അംഗങ്ങൾ മാത്രം ഉൾപ്പെടുന്ന കമ്മിറ്റി ഏതാണ്

എസ്റ്റിമേറ്റ് കമ്മിറ്റി


  1. വിദ്യാപോഷിണി എന്ന സാംസ്‌കാരിക സംഘടനക്ക് രൂപം നൽകിയത് ആരായിരുന്നു

സഹോദരൻ അയ്യപ്പൻ


  1. രാജ് ഘട്ട് ഏത് നദിതീരത്താണ് സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്നത്

യമുന നദി


  1. ഭഗവത്ഗീത പാഠ്യ വിഷയമാക്കിയ ആദ്യ സംസ്ഥാനം ഏതാണ്



  1. ഇന്ത്യയുടെ പവർ ഹൌസ് എന്നറിയപ്പെടുന്ന സംസ്ഥാനം ഏതാണ്



  1. ഇന്ത്യയിൽ സുപ്രീം കോടതി നിലവിൽ വന്നത് എപ്പോളായിരുന്നു

1950 ജനുവരി 28


  1. കാലേശ്വരം ജലസേചന പദ്ധതി ആരംഭിച്ചത് ഏത് സംസ്ഥാനത്താണ്



  1. കേരളത്തിൽ ആദ്യ ബോക്സിങ് അക്കാദമി നിലവിൽ വന്നത് എവിടെ



  1. ലാല ഹർദയാലിന്റെ രാഷ്ട്രീയ ഗുരു ആരായിരുന്നു

ലാല ലജ്പത് റായ്


  1. മുണ്ടൻ തുറൈ വന്യജീവി സങ്കേതം സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്നത് ഏത് സംസ്ഥാനത്താണ്

തമിഴ് നാട്


  1. ദേശീയ വാഴപ്പഴ ഗവേഷണ കേന്ദ്രം എവിടെയാണ്



  1. ക്യോട്ടോ പ്രോട്ടോക്കോൾ വിളംബരം ചെയ്യപ്പെട്ടത് ഏത് വർഷമായിരുന്നു



  1. ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ആദ്യ കടുവ സെൻസസ് നടന്നത് ഏത് വർഷമായിരുന്നു



  1. അന്തർദേശീയ കടുവ ദിനമായി ആചരിക്കുന്നത് ഏത് ദിവസമാണ്

ജൂലൈ 29


  1. സത്യശോധക് സമാജം സ്ഥാപിതമായത് ഏത് വർഷമായിരുന്നു



  1. ആര്യ സമാജം സ്ഥാപിതമായത് ഏത് നഗരത്തിലായിരുന്നു



  1. ഡൽഹി ഭരിച്ച ആദ്യ സുൽത്താൻ ആരായിരുന്നു

കുത്തബ്ദീൻ ഐബക്


  1. കെ കെ വാസുദേവൻ എന്ന തൂലികാനാമത്തിൽ അറിയപ്പെട്ടത് ആര്

ഇ എം എസ്


  1. ദേവപുത്ര എന്ന ബിരുദം സ്വീകരിച്ച ഭരണാധികാരി ആരായിരുന്നു



  1. മഹാരാഷ്ട്രയുടെ രത്നം എന്നറിയപ്പെടുന്നത് ആരെയാണ്

ഗോപാലകൃഷ്ണ ഗോഖലെ


  1. ധാന്യങ്ങളെക്കുറിച്ചുള്ള പഠനം ഏത് പേരിലറിയപ്പെടുന്നു



  1. കേരള വാല്മീകി എന്ന പേരിലറിയപ്പെടുന്നത് ആരെ

വള്ളത്തോൾ നാരായണമേനോൻ


  1. ‘ വിശക്കാത്ത ദൈവവും വിശക്കുന്ന മനുഷ്യനും ‘ എന്ന കൃതി രചിച്ചത് ആരാണ്

വി ടി ഭട്ടതിരിപ്പാട്


  1. മൗലിക അവകാശങ്ങളുടെ ശിൽപ്പി എന്നറിയപ്പെടുന്നത് ആരെയാണ്

സർദാർ വല്ലഭായ് പട്ടേൽ


  1. പോയിന്റ് കാലിമർ പക്ഷി സങ്കേതം സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്നത് ഏത് സംസ്ഥാനത്താണ്

തമിഴ് നാട്


  1. തുരിശിന്റെ രാസനാമം എന്താണ്

കോപ്പർ സൾഫേറ്റ്


  1. ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ഏറ്റവും പഴക്കമുള്ള ഹൈക്കോടതി ഏതാണ്

കൊൽക്കത്ത ഹൈക്കോടതി


  1. ഭൂമിയിൽ ഏറ്റവും അപൂർവമായി കാണപ്പെടുന്ന മൂലകം ഏതാണ്



  1. മീഥേൻ കണ്ടുപിടിച്ച ശാസ്ത്രജ്ഞൻ ആരായിരുന്നു

അലക്‌സാൻഡ്രോ വോൾട്ട


  1. ഇന്ദിരാ ഗാന്ധി സമാധാന സമ്മാനം ആദ്യമായി ലഭിച്ചത് ആർക്കായിരുന്നു

മിഖായേൽ ഗോർബച്ചേവ്


  1. ലോക പ്രമേഹ ദിനമായി ആചരിക്കുന്നത് ഏത് ദിവസമാണ്

നവംബർ 14


  1. കേരളത്തിലെ ആദ്യത്തെ കണ്ടൽ മ്യൂസിയം എവിടെയാണ്



  1. ഇട്ടി അച്യുതൻ ഹോർത്തൂസ് മലബാറിക്കസ് മ്യൂസിയം എവിടെയാണ്



  1. കേരളത്തിലെ ക്ഷേത്ര നഗരം എന്നറിയപ്പെടുന്ന സ്ഥലം ഏതാണ്



  1. ഗണിത ശാസ്ത്രത്തിലെ രാജകുമാരൻ എന്നറിയപ്പെടുന്നത് ആരെ

കാൾ ഫ്രഡറിക് ഗോസ്


  1. പാർലമെന്റ് കൂടുന്നതിന് മുൻപുള്ള ആദ്യ നടപടി എന്താണ്

തർക്ക വിഷയ ചർച്ച


  1. തുടർച്ചയായി രണ്ടു പ്രാവശ്യം രാഷ്‌ട്രപതി ഭരണം ഏർപെടുത്തപ്പെട്ട സംസ്ഥാനം ഏത്



  1. കേരളത്തിലെ ആദ്യത്തെ അതിവേഗ കോടതി സ്ഥാപിതമായത് എവിടെ



  1. യൂറോപ്യൻമാർ കൊച്ചിയിൽ ആരംഭിച്ച ആദ്യത്തെ ചർച് ഏതായിരുന്നു

സെന്റ് ഫ്രാൻസിസ്  ചർച്


  1. ബൊട്ടാണിക്കൽ സർവേ ഓഫ് ഇന്ത്യയുടെ ആസ്ഥാനം എവിടെയാണ്



  1. കേംബ്രിഡ്ജ് സർവകലാശാല സ്ഥാപിതമായത് ഏത് വർഷമായിരുന്നു



  1. ഒന്നാം വട്ടമേശ സമ്മേളനം നടന്നത് ഏത് വർഷമായിരുന്നു



  1. ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ആദ്യ വനിതാ നിയമസഭാ സ്പീക്കർ ആരായിരുന്നു



  1. ചരിത്രത്തിന്റെ തോഴി എന്നറിയപ്പെടുന്ന പഠനശാഖ ഏതാണ്



  1. പ്രശസ്തമായ മാഗ്നാ കാർട്ട ഒപ്പു വെച്ചത് ഏത് വർഷമായിരുന്നു



  1. മാസപ്പടി മാതുപ്പിള്ള എന്ന കഥാപാത്രത്തെ സൃഷ്ടിച്ചത്

വേളൂർ കൃഷ്ണൻകുട്ടി

The post 3500 Kerala PSC General Knowledge Malayalam Questions and Answers appeared first on Tutor-Saliba.

]]> 0 43
111 Animal Quiz Questions and Answers Sun, 23 Feb 2020 05:26:30 +0000 Animals Quiz Questions and Answers

Animal Quiz Questions and Answers   DOGS QUIZ – Animal Quiz Questions Part 1 Test your knowledge about dogs with this quiz.   1) There are 319 bones in a normal dog’s skeleton. True or False? Answer: True A dog born without a tail, or one whose tail has been removed, will have fewer.   […]

The post 111 Animal Quiz Questions and Answers appeared first on Tutor-Saliba.

Animals Quiz Questions and Answers

Animal Quiz Questions and Answers

Animal Quiz Questions and Answers


DOGS QUIZ – Animal Quiz Questions Part 1

Test your knowledge about dogs with this quiz.


1) There are 319 bones in a normal dog’s skeleton. True or False?

Answer: True

A dog born without a tail, or one whose tail has been removed, will have fewer.


2) Right or Wrong: Dachshunds have short legs because they were bred to hunt animals that live in burrows. True or False?

Answer: True

Dachshunds’ short legs and long bodies allowed them to pursue animals such as badgers into burrows and tunnels.


3) A dog’s sense of taste is more developed than a human’s. True or False?

Answer: False

Humans have around 9,000 taste buds on average, while dogs generally have fewer than 2,000. That may be why dogs will eat things that would be too disgusting for any human to touch.


4) Which word means a baby dog?

Answer: whelp

A shoat is a young pig; a porcupette is a young porcupine; and a cygnet is a young swan.


5) Which breeds of dogs is known for making a yodeling noise instead of barking?

Answer: basenji

Basenjis also make a variety of other sounds, but they don’t bark.


6) About how many breeds of purebred dogs does the American Kennel Club recognize?

Answer: about 200

The 188th and 189th breeds, the American hairless and the Sloughi, received formal recognition in 2016.


7) Which country is the Akita most closely associated with?

Answer: Japan

The Akita breed originated in the mountains of northern Japan and was designated a “natural monument” by the Japanese government in 1931.


8) Which dog breed became the most-popular dog breed in the United States in the early 1990s and held the title for more than a quarter of a century?

Answer: Labrador retriever

Intelligent and even-tempered, Labrador retrievers make good pets and are used in military and police work and as guide dogs for the blind.


9) Which dog breeds originated in Tibet?

Answer: Lhasa apso

In Tibet, the Lhasa apso is called abso seng kye (“bark lion sentinel dog”), and it is used as an indoor guard dog.


CAT QUIZ – Animal Quiz Questions Part 2

How much do you know about cats?


10) Which Egyptian goddess is pictured as a cat or as a woman with the head of a cat?

Answer: Bastet

Bastet, by the way, is often pictured holding a musical instrument called a sistrum.


11) All tortoiseshell cats are male. True or False?

Answer: False

Because two X chromosomes are necessary to produce tortoiseshell cats’ mix of black and orange fur, nearly all tortoiseshell cats are female.


12) Which composer and lyricist wrote the musical Cats?

Answer: Andrew Lloyd Webber

Cats is based on T.S. Eliot’s Old Possum’s Book of Practical Cats. The musical debuted in 1981.


13) Which special physical trait does a so-called “Hemingway cat” possess?

Answer: extra toes

Polydactyly—meaning extra toes—is a relatively common abnormality in cats. Hemingway owned a six-toed cat, and today dozens of cats with polydactyly live on the grounds of his home and museum in Florida.

14) Too much catnip can be harmful to a cat. True or False?

Answer: False

The catnip plant, which is a member of the mint family, is not addictive or harmful to cats.


15) Which of the following U.S. presidents did not own a cat while living in the White House?

Answer: Barack Obama

The Obama family owned two Portuguese Water Dogs, Bo and Sunny, but no cats.


16) Which lexicographer defined cat as “a deceitful animal, and when enraged, extremely spiteful”?

Answer: Noah Webster

The definition appeared in Webster’s An American Dictionary of the English Language, published in 1828.


17) About how fast can a domestic cat run in short bursts?

Answer: 30 miles per hour

Domestic cats have been clocked at 30 miles per hour over short distances. That’s about the same top speed as the fastest human sprinters.


18) How many breeds of cats are recognized by the Cat Fanciers’ Association?

Answer: about 40

As of 2016, the CFA recognizes 42 cat breeds.


THE BIG CATS – Animal Quiz Questions Part 3

Although photographs and videos of cute domesticated cats are frequent subjects of Internet searches and social media posts, how much do you really know about the larger members of the cat family?


19) The mountain lion, or cougar, of the Americas is also known as the:

Answer: Puma

The puma (Puma concolor), which is also called a mountain lion, a cougar, a panther (eastern U.S.), or a catamount, is a large brownish New World cat comparable in size to the jaguar—the only other large cat of the Western Hemisphere.


20) Which member of genus Lynx is the smallest in size?

Answer: Bobcat

The bobcat (Lynx rufus), roughly the size of a large domestic cat, is the smallest lynx. It weighs 9–12 kg (about 20–26 pounds) and stands 45–58 cm (18–23 inches) tall at the shoulder.


21) Which member of genus Lynx is currently classified as a critically endangered species?

Answer: Iberian lynx

The devastation of the Iberian lynx’s (Lynx pardinus’s) staple prey, the European rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus), by myxomatosis beginning in the 1950s and by rabbit hemorrhagic disease from the late 1980s has caused significant population declines. Habitat loss, vehicle strikes, and hunting pressure have also contributed to an 80 percent decline in population since 1960.


22) Which big cat listed below currently resides in isolated pockets of Central and South America?

Answer: Jaguar

The jaguar (Panthera onca), which is also called el tigre or tigre americano, is the largest New World member of the cat family (Felidae). It was once found from the U.S.-Mexican border southward to Patagonia, Argentina.


23) The term black panther is most frequently applied to:

Answer: Leopards and jaguars

Black panther is a colloquial term that refers to members of the cat genus Panthera that are characterized by a coat of black fur or large concentrations of black spots set against a dark background. The term black panther is most frequently applied to black-coated leopards (Panthera pardus) of Africa and Asia and jaguars (Panthera onca) of Central and South America.


24) Which “big cat” is the largest member of the cat family (Felidae)?

Answer: Tiger

Tigers are the largest members of the cat family. The Siberian, or Amur, tiger (Panthera tigris altaica) is the largest of the tigers, measuring up to 4 meters (13 feet) in total length and weighing up to 300 kg (660 pounds).


25) In a sprint to capture prey, which member of the cat family is the fastest?

Answer: Cheetah

Cheetahs’ sprints have been measured at a maximum of 114 km (71 miles) per hour, and they routinely reach speeds of 80–100 km per hour while pursuing prey. The cheetah was common throughout North America, Europe, and Asia until the end of the last ice age, about 11,700 years ago.


26) By the early 21st century, lions (Panthera leo) were limited to habitats in:

Answer: Africa and India

Historically, lions ranged across much of Europe, Asia, and Africa, but now they are found mainly in parts of Africa south of the Sahara. An isolated population of about 500 Asiatic lions constitutes a slightly smaller race that lives under strict protection in India’s Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary.


27) Which big cat species can be found in pockets from southern Africa to the Korean peninsula?

Answer: Leopard

Once distributed over large parts of both Africa and Asia, by 2015 leopards had lost close to 75 percent of their former range. Several large pockets, however, remained throughout sub-Saharan Africa, Iran, and the Himalayas, with smaller pockets scattered throughout Central Asia, India, Southeast Asia, eastern China and Manchuria, and the Korean peninsula. In addition, one tiny pocket of leopards persists in the Atlas Mountains.


28) Which “big cat” species can be found in Indonesia?

Answer: Tiger

Tigers range from the Russian Far East through parts of North Korea, China, India, and Southeast Asia to the Indonesian island of Sumatra.


CELEBRITIES’ PETS’ NAMES – Animal Quiz Questions Part 4

Celebrities have some very cute animals to call their own, and they give them some of the cutest names too. Test your knowledge of celebrities’ pets with this quiz.


29) A bunny rabbit named Cecil is the pet of model Cara Delevingne.

Answer: True

Cecil Bunny Delevingne—his full name—has his own Twitter and Instagram accounts.


30) Singer Katy Perry’s cat is named California Gurl.

Answer: False

Katy Perry’s cat actually has the best name ever: Kitty Purry.


31) Actress Selma Blair named her one-eyed dog Popeye.

Answer: False

Selma Blair’s dog was named Wink.


32) Singer Taylor Swift named her two cats after television characters.

Answer: True

Taylor Swift adopted Meredith Grey (Grey’s Anatomy) first and then, a couple of years later, Olivia Benson (Law and Order: Special Victims Unit).


33) Rapper 50 Cent and actress Eva Longoria both named their dogs after Oprah Winfrey.

Answer: True

50 Cent named his miniature schnauzer Oprah Winfree, while Eva Longoria went with the mononym Oprah for her pug.


34) Singer Ed Sheeran gave his adorable tabby kitten the dignified name Graham.

Answer: True

Human names are always popular for celebrity pets, which is a little ironic, considering the strange names they often give their human children.


35) Singer and actress Miley Cyrus has a cat named Harlem.

Answer: True

In April 2016 Miley Cyrus suffered a vicious attack by her cat and posted the pictures of her wounds on Instagram.


36) Designer Karl Lagerfeld’s cat, Choupette, had her own line of luxury cosmetics.

Answer: True

Choupette was the furry face of a line called “Shupette,” done in collaboration with Shu Uemura.


CAPYBARAS – Animal Quiz Questions Part 5

How much do you know about these giant lovable critters? Test your knowledge of capybaras with this quiz.


37) To which continent are capybaras native?

Answer: South America

Capybaras roam through much of South America.


38) True or False: Capybaras are related to guinea pigs.

Answer: True

Capybaras are closely related to guinea pigs and cavies.


39) To what order do capybaras belong?

Answer: Rodentia

Capybaras are rodents—the largest rodents, in fact!


40) True or False: Capybaras cannot swim.

Answer: False

Capybaras are semiaquatic and swim and dive readily.


41) True or False: Capybaras live in groups.

Answer: True

Capybaras are very social and may live in groups as large as 100 members!


42) Are capybaras herbivores, carnivores, or omnivores?

Answer: herbivores

Capybaras are herbivores. They eat mostly grasses and aquatic plants as well as fruit and bark.


43) True or False: The capybara has been featured on money.

Answer: True

The Uruguayan 2 peso bill has had a picture of a capybara on it.


44) On average, how many babies are in a capybara litter?

Answer: 4 or 5

Capybaras usually have about 4 or 5 babies in a litter, although they can have as many as 8.


WHAT KIND OF ANIMAL? – Animal Quiz Questions Part 6

What do you know about animal nomenclature? Take this quiz and find out.


45) What kind of fish is not referred to as scrod?

Answer: Tuna

Scrod is a culinary term for whitefish, usually species such as cod, haddock, and pollock. Kathy Najimy’s character in Hocus Pocus suggests some delicious recipes, if you’re into seafood.


46) What kind of animal is a bongo?

Answer: Antelope

The bongo is an African forest antelope.


47) What kind of animal is a kodkod?

Answer: Cat

The kodkod is a small South American cat.


48) What kind of animal is a thickknee?

Answer: Bird

Thickknees are a type of shorebird.


49) What kind of animal is a matamata?

Answer: Turtle

The matamata is a South American turtle.


50) What kind of animal is a kite?

Answer: Bird

A kite is a type of bird.


51) What kind of animal is a grunt?

Answer: Fish

Grunts are any of about 150 species of marine fish in the family Haemulidae.


52) What kind of animal is a hellbender?

Answer: Salamander

The hellbender is a large salamander native to North America.


53) What kind of animal is a gribble?

Answer: Crustacean

It is a wood-boring marine crustacean.


54) What kind of animal is a silverside?

Answer: Fish

Silversides are small schooling fish.


55) What kind of animal is a spring peeper?

Answer: Frog

The spring peeper is a small woodland frog native to North America.


56) What kind of animal is a white-eye?

Answer: Bird

The white-eyes are small songbirds.


57) What kind of animal is a gourami?

Answer: Fish

Gouramis are any of several species of fish native to Asia. They breathe air as well as water using a special organ and are related to Siamese fighting fish.


58) What kind of animal is a racer?

Answer: Snake

Racers are nonvenomous snakes native to North and South America.


LEMURS: True or False? – Animal Quiz Questions Part 7

How much do you know about these odd-looking creatures? Test your knowledge with this quiz.


59) Lemurs are native to both Brazil and Madagascar. True or False?

Answer: False

Fossils indicate that lemurs used to live throughout the world, but wild lemurs are native solely to Madagascar.


60) Male lemurs are known for their “stink fights.” True or False?

Answer: True

They rub their tails through scent glands located on their wrists and shoulders and wave their stinky tails at each other. These “fights” have been known to last up to an hour.


61) The “song” of one type of lemur is particularly noteworthy. True or False?

Answer: True

Indri lemur vocalizations are loud and complex and have been compared to the songs of humpback whales.


62) Lemurs are members of the rodent family. True or False?

Answer: False

Lemurs, like humans, are primates, though they are prosimians (”pre-monkeys”) rather than anthropoids.


63) Some lemurs, who live in trees, use a magical sort of sideways skipping motion to move when they’re on the ground. True or False?

Answer: True

These dancing, or leaping, lemurs include indris and sifakas.


64) Lemurs, like other prosimians, use their teeth as a comb. True or False?

Answer: True

Lemurs have a dental structure known as a toothcomb to aid in grooming. Their feet, specialized for climbing and other activities, are not especially useful in grooming.


65) In the world of lemurs, females rule. True or False?

Answer: True

Although there are exceptions for some species, for the most part female lemurs are the dominant sex.


66) The lemurs’ most acute sense is their vision. True or False?

Answer: False

In fact, despite the lemurs’ startling and large eyes, it is their sense of smell that is most acute. Their canine-like moist noses and longish snouts are one indication of this.


67) Feral cats pose the greatest threat to lemurs. True or False?

Answer: False

The destruction of lemur habitats by humans poses the greatest threat to lemurs.


68) The smallest primate is a lemur. True or False?

Answer: True

Madame Berthe’s mouse lemur, the smallest primate, is about 9 centimeters (3.5 inches) in length and weighs some 35 grams (1 ounce).


INSECT WINGS: True or False? – Animal Quiz Questions Part 8

What do you know about insect wings? Test your knowledge with this quiz.


69) Insect wings are outgrowths of the exoskeleton, made up primarily of a multilayered material known as cuticle.

Answer: True

Insect wings develop as outgrowths of the exoskeleton during morphogenesis. The exoskeleton and wings are composed mainly of cuticle, which itself is made up of chitin microfibers and protein matrix.


70) Insects were the first groups of animals to evolve functional wings for true flight.

Answer: True

Insects evolved fully functional wings for true flight (as opposed to gliding, or passive flight) about 350 million years ago. Some 100 million years later the now extinct Pterosaurs, giant flying reptiles, evolved flight. Birds developed flight roughly 150 millions years ago, followed later by bats.


71) All insects possess two pairs of wings, known as the forewings and the hind wings.

Answer: False

While most insects possess both forewings and hind wings, some species have only forewings and others are entirely wingless.


72) In beetles, only the hind wings function in flight.

Answer: True

In beetles, the forewings have been modified to serve as hard shields (elytra), which hide and protect the hind wings, or flying wings.


73) The veins of insect wings are filled with a circulatory fluid known as hemolymph.

Answer: True

Hemolymph flows into the veins of insect wings from a body cavity known as the hemocoel.


74) The pattern of wing venation is constant across all species of insects.

Answer: False

Patterns of wing venation vary considerably among insects and can be used to distinguish between different genera.


75) Insects can have one of two different flight muscle arrangements: direct or indirect.

Answer: True

In insects with a direct arrangement, the flight muscles are attached to the base of the wing. In insects with an indirect arrangement, the flight muscles are attached to the thorax.


76) The hind wings of hymenopterans—which include ants, honeybees, and wasps—are connected to the forewings by tiny hooks called hamuli.

Answer: True

In hymenopterans, hamuli on the anterior margin of the hind wing lock the forewings and hind wings together. The number of hamuli present varies, with small hymenopterans typically having fewer hamuli than larger species.


ANIMAL MATING BEHAVIOR – Animal Quiz Questions Part 9

What do you know about animal mating behavior? Take this quiz and find out.


77) Peacock spiders, known for their exotic colors and bizarrely charming mating dances, are native to which country?

Answer: Australia

Peacock spiders are found in Australia.


78) Male grouse and other birds aggregate and compete for the attention of females in groups known as what?

Answer: Leks

The males of some bird species gather and compete for the right to mate with females in groups known as leks.


79) How do male dance flies entice prospective mates?

Answer: By presenting them with packages of food

Male dance flies present prospective mates with prey items wrapped in silk. Some species, however, only give females half-eaten food or empty silk balloons. Cheapskates.


80) What is a hectocotylus?

Answer: The mating arm of a cephalopod

Male cephalopods impregnate females by using the hectocotylus, which serves the same function as a penis. Some cephalopods detach the arm and leave it on the female. It finds its own way to her reproductive tract.


81) What part of her mate’s body does a female sagebrush cricket eat?

Answer: His wings

She eats his fleshy and nutritious wings.


82) The giant garden slug dangles from what while mating?

Answer: A rope of slime

Giant garden slugs create a rope of slime and dangle from it while they mate. They may eat it after they are done.


83) The males of which group of birds are known for creating elaborately decorated structures in order to entice mates?

Answer: Bowerbirds

Male bowerbirds create structures decorated with colorful items, sometimes even painted with chewed-up flower petals.


84) What is the name of the evolutionary phenomenon that accounts for the massive tails of peacocks?

Answer: Sexual selection

Sexual selection is the phenomenon in which animals evolve structures or behaviors solely for the purpose of attracting mates.


85) The females of which type of animal compete for male attention, in a reversal of typical sex roles?

Answer: Pipefish

Female pipefish display temporary color patterns in order to attract males. They are more colorful than the males and larger as well. Pipefish are related to seahorses, and, like their relatives, the males carry the eggs until they hatch.


86) In which bird species will a homosexual male pair “adopt” a female and raise offspring with her?

Answer: Greylag goose

Male greylag geese sometimes form homosexual pair bonds. They may mate with a female and create a three-parent household.


OWL QUIZ – Animal Quiz Questions Part 10

How much do you know about owls?


87) Owls are closely related to hawks, eagles, and falcons.

Answer: False

Although owls and other birds of prey have some common features, these are thought to be the result of convergent evolution rather than common ancestry. Owls are believed to be closely related to the Caprimulgiformes (nightjars and nighthawks).


88) Which fictional hero has an owl named Hedwig?

Answer: Harry Potter

In the Harry Potter books and films, owls are used to carry messages and packages.


89) Which of these best describes the mating patterns of most owl species?

Answer: lifelong monogamy

Owls generally pair with only one individual until one member of the pair dies. Outside of breeding season, owls tend to be solitary.


90) According to Pliny the Elder, writing in 77 CE, were owls generally considered to be good omens or bad omens?

Answer: Bad omens

In his Natural History, Pliny wrote, “The horned owl is especially funereal, and is greatly abhorred in all auspices of a public nature: it inhabits deserted places, and not only desolate spots, but those of a frightful and inaccessible nature: the monster of the night, its voice is heard, not with any tuneful note, but emitting a sort of shriek. Hence it is that it is looked upon as a direful omen to see it in a city, or even so much as in the day-time.” (Natural History 10.16)


91) Where did the extinct giant owl Ornimegalonyx Oteroi live?

Answer: Cuba

Ornimegalonyx lived in the late Pleistocene and stood nearly four feet (1.2 meters) tall.


92) True or False: Owls’ eyes can’t turn in their sockets.

Answer: True

Owls’ eyes are tube-shaped, which gives owls excellent vision but makes it impossible for the eye to move in the socket. Owls compensate by being able to rotate their heads more than 180 degrees.


93) True or False: Some species of owls have one ear placed higher than the other on their skull.

Answer: True

This adaptation, which occurs in barn owls and some other species that hunt at night, is thought to help owls pinpoint the location of sounds. The asymmetry is not visible, because the ears are covered with feathers.


94) If somebody calls you an owl (pöllö) in Finnish, what are they saying about you?

Answer: You’re stupid.

Although owls are a symbol of wisdom in many cultures, they’re also associated with stupidity in some cultures. In Finland, the word for “owl” also means “stupid,” possibly because owls’ wide-open eyes seem to give them a simpleminded appearance.


95) True or False: Burrowing owls dig their own burrows.

Answer: False

Burrowing owls prefer to live in burrows built by other animals, such as prairie dogs, although the owls will sometimes do a little extra digging to expand an existing burrow.


FISHES VS. MAMMALS – Animal Quiz Questions Part 11

Fishes and mammals are obviously different, right? Then you should have no problem acing this quiz. Test your knowledge about the differences between fishes and mammals.


96) Which are warm-blooded, have hair, and have young that are nourished with milk from their mother’s mammary glands?

Answer: Mammals

Probably the most-significant defining mammal characteristic is the ability of mothers to nurse their young with milk from their mammary glands.


97) Baleen, an animal structure used to sift plankton from the oceans, evolved in which group?

Answer: Mammals

Baleen is a keratinized structure like hair, fingernails, and hooves. The baleen apparatus hangs down in two transverse rows, one from each side of the roof of the mouth (palate).


98) The mature red blood cells in which group have a nucleus?

Answer: Fishes

Mature red blood cells (erythrocytes) in all mammals lack a nucleus. All other vertebrates have nucleated red blood cells.


99) The smallest living members of which group weigh under 1 gram (0.04 ounce) whereas the largest can weigh about 180 metric tons (about 200 short tons)?

Answer: Mammals

Living mammals range in size from a bat weighing less than a gram and tiny shrews weighing but a few grams to the largest animal that has ever lived, the blue whale, which reaches a length of more than 30 meters (100 feet) and a weight of about 180 metric tons (about 200 short [U.S.] tons).


100) In which group does the quadrate bone separate the lower jaw from the skull?

Answer: Fishes

The mammalian lower jaw is hinged directly to the skull, instead of through a separate bone (the quadrate) as in all other vertebrates. A chain of three tiny bones transmits sound waves across the middle ear.


101) Which group is made up of chondrichthians, agnathans, and osteichthyians?

Answer: Fishes

Chondrichthyes, Agnatha, and Osteichthyes are the names of the prominent subcategories of fishes. The chondrichthians are the cartilaginous fishes (the sharks, skates, and rays), the agnathans are the jawless fishes (the hagfishes and lampreys), and the osteichthyians are the bony fishes.


102) In geologic time, the Devonian Period is also known as the age of which group?”

Answer: Fishes

The Devonian Period is sometimes called the “Age of Fishes” because of the diverse, abundant, and, in some cases, bizarre types of these creatures that swam Devonian seas.


103) Which group includes the proboscideans, metatherians, chiropterans, and cetaceans?

Answer: Mammals

These four groups are examples of some of the several prominent subcategories of mammals. Proboscidea is made up of living elephants and their ancestors. Metatheria contains the marsupials. Chiroptera is the name of the group that encompasses all of the world’s bats. Cetacea comprises the aquatic group of mammals commonly known as whales, dolphins, and porpoises.


WHAT’S BUGGING YOU? – Animal Quiz Questions Part 12

Do you know what makes a bug a bug? Test your knowledge with this quiz.


104) So-called true bugs belong to the insect order Heteroptera.

Answer: True

Members of the insect order Heteroptera (or Hemiptera), which comprises the so-called true bugs, are called heteropterans.


105) True bugs are distinguished by a Y-shaped design on the back, which is formed by the wings at rest.

Answer: False

Heteropterans are recognized by an X-shaped design on the back, which is formed by the wings at rest.


106) True bugs are the only insects with beaklike mouthparts and a hardened lower surface of the head.

Answer: True

Piercing and sucking mouthparts, together with a hardened gula (underside of the head), distinguish the heteropterans from all other insect orders.


107) True bugs are hemimetabolous, experiencing an incomplete metamorphosis.

Answer: True

Heteropterans undergo hemimetabolous metamorphosis, in which they emerge from eggs and develop into nymphs that resemble adults in shape. Nymphs grow in stages (instars), eventually molting into their full adult form.


108) Although true bugs commonly produce sound, it is seldom loud enough to attract human attention.

Answer: True

Owing to their small size, heteropterans are unable to produce the conspicuous sounds typical of insects such as crickets and katydids.


109) True bugs are social insects.

Answer: False

Although newly hatched nymphs occasionally remain together for a brief period of time, heteropterans essentially are nonsocial insects, dispersing to search for food and mates.


110) True bugs have stiff forewings and leathery hindwings.

Answer: False

Heteropterans possess stiff forewings and thin delicate hindwings.


111) Some of the oldest extant families of true bugs first emerged during the Triassic Period.

Answer: True

While the first primitive true bug (Psocoptera) appeared in the Late Permian Period, the oldest living heteropteran families emerged later, during the Triassic Period.


Check > Top 70 History Quiz Questions and Answers

The post 111 Animal Quiz Questions and Answers appeared first on Tutor-Saliba.

]]> 0 31